
However obvious and beneficial some ideas may be, unless explicitly stated, they are often not mainstream. One of such ideas concerns, what I feel is, the primary cause of racism: misattribution of income-level characeristics to race due to uneven distribution of said race among income levels for historical reasons. Specifically:
Racial statements concerning aggressiveness, which can be observed with respect to a specific race, are a result of faulty logic in which the aggression present among the members of the lower income classes of the society is incorrectly concluded to be a property of a race.
Lack of acknowledgement of this idea by adults leads to problems among the young, who often lack the knowledge to keep a clear head consequently delaying the moment when racism will be a shameful element of our past.
Back in college I decided to prove the above statement through statistics. I chose the black population as there is no immigration that would complicate analysis. However, this analysis could apply just as well to any race. In my research, I believe I've shown that from 1970s to 2000 there are two clear trends.
1) Violent crime by blacks went noticeably down
2) The black population income distribution clearly improved
While this is by no means an exaustive analysis, I think it is sufficient to lend some credibility to the idea regarding the cause of racism as well as how to deal with it. The consequences are multiple, including:
1) When there is a wave of immigration, the immigrants tend to start by populating primarily the lower class thus leading to racism. Education on the misattribution of violence within income levels could accelerate assimilation of these immigrants into our society by eliminating unnecessary animosity. This has been and is presently an issue with Mexicans, Indians, and Chinese and will likely become an issue with North Korea after it collapses.
2) This perception lends additional credibility to programs such as affirmative action, which seek to accelerate the evening out of racial distribution among income levels. (Alternatively, if there was no social racism, such programs could be eliminated altogether as such they in and of themselves would be racist. Although racism being an emotional entity impossible to eliminate along with other bigotry in the near future, I would support affirmative action as a significantly lesser evil.)
My research project can be found at: http://www.nikitab.com/Projects/myth/Application%20-%20racism.htm.
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Addendum 1:43 AM - Structure of the Argument.
After a discussion with my brother and some insightful comments by The Rational Enquirer, I found a way to formulate my position a little better. It can be summarized in the following statements:
1) There is higher violence among low income classes. (Assumed to be true. Proven indirectly.)
2) For historical reasons, some groups are distributed unproportionally between different income levels. (Assumed to be true. Demonstrated for black population)
3) Statement 2) results in observer seeing higher number of members of a certain race within the low-income class.
4) Sgtatement 1) results in observer seeing higher level of violence in the low-income class.
5) Because 3) and 4), observer sees higher level of violence for a certain race, which leads to an incorrect link between race and violence in observer's mind.
I show enough information to demonstrate that, for the black population:
6) As distribution changes shifting towards a more fair one, the violence is reduced. Thereby demonstrating that that 5 is a false conclusion.
I prove 6 by showing that, between 1970s and 2000:
7) Cross-race homicide rates are low (Source).
8) Violent crime rates for black victims went down. (Source)
9) Statements 7) and 8) give reason to believe that violence among blacks went down.
10) The distribution of blacks within US society has changed significantly with more blacks moving from the low-income into the mid-income class. (Source)
11) Statements 10) and 9) prove 6)
Nikita, I think I get the essence of what you're trying to illustrate here, but -- and perhaps it's just my quick reading of your analysis -- I think you have some more work to do for your hypothesis to be accurate.
Just a couple of notes/questions:
I chose the black population as there is no immigration that would complicate analysis.
I think here you make a classic overstatement. "Blacks" are not a monolithic group. There are blacks who have immigrated to this country from not only Africa, but South America, the Carribean, Europe and elsewhere, and arrived in this country during the timeframe you selected.
this post may be considered as a bit of an apology. When we immigrated in 91, I was picked on by some black kids and, consequently, developed an instinctual fear and discomfort of black people
This might explain some of the "kinks" in the hypothesis. Would have developed the same fear if the kids that picked on you had the same skin color, or were from your ethnic group? Is it being a new kid or was it an ethnic difference that played the major role in your fear and discomfort?
1) Violent crime by blacks went noticeably down
2) The black population income distribution clearly improved
Perhaps you explain this better elsewhere, but I don't think you've established clearly how these statistics are related to your hypothesis.
1) When there is a wave of immigration, the immigrants tend to start by populating primarily the lower class thus leading to racism.
Here again, I think you have reached a conclusion without logical basis, especially since you wanted to eliminate immigration from your analysis. Not all immigrants are lower class, or even "primarily" lower class. How do low class immigrants "lead to" racism?
Education on the misattribution of violence within income levels could accelerate assimilation of these immigrants into our society by eliminating unnecessary animosity. This has been and is presently an issue with Mexicans, Indians, and Chinese and will likely become an issue with North Korea after it collapses.
I don't think immigrants would be "assimilated" any faster (in or out of their "income levels") because children were taught about "misattribution of violence." (I'm not getting the reference to the other ethnic groups you list here. Again, maybe it's stated better elsewhere.) Opinions about ethnicities other than your own are not developed from a single source. That is, if your parents tell you black people stink, violence has nothing to do with it. You would be conditioned to consider any aroma emanting from a black person to be unpleasant (stink) and far less likely to consider it pleasant (perfume). If your same ethnicity friends say black people are not as smart as you, you become conditioned to consider all blacks stupid. I think you may have overlooked these other factors which affect one ethnicity's perception of another.
2) This perception lends additional credibility...
I think this paragraph is really what you want to say, and everything else is dancing around it. I think you're trying find a way to justify Affirmative Action and other civil/social rights programs, but don't want to come right out and say it. I think here you're saying racism -- bigotry, prejudice, social injustice -- are wrong because they negatively impact a group based on groundless or false beliefs about an ethnic group. That affects them across the board and although it is not the best solution, some form of redress (affirmative action) is necessary until a different solution can be found.
I think I'd say you get to the right answer eventually, but there is a lot of faulty math along the way.
Great work on this article!
I agree with your results when I specifically follow your line of reasoning, but I think that this only represents one aspect of racism. From the dictionary.com definition:
1.a belief or doctrine that inherent differences among the various human races determine cultural or individual achievement, usually involving the idea that one's own race is superior and has the right to rule others.
2.a policy, system of government, etc., based upon or fostering such a doctrine; discrimination.
3.hatred or intolerance of another race or other races.
There are many reasons behind racism as defined above, and socioeconomic status and attribution of violent behavior are only two of them. Perceptions of intellectual inferiority, inferior work ethic, and various other things are all big pieces of the puzzle. In this sense, your hypothesis holds, as these are all (arguably) traits that can be found as much in class differences as race.
The difference is that there are people who don't really care about any of those things; they believe that blacks, for example, are inferior simply because they are black; beyond this, everything discussed above is a moot point. Assimilation, thusfar in American history, means being accepted as having no cultural differences to that of the mainstream 'white' population. Most Blacks, along with other minority groups, don't have this available as an option - as Americans still judge based on skin color, no matter how innocently, assimilating into the mainstream is only possible if one becomes either a token member of their race, or can pass as white.
Anyway, away from that tangent, racism may be 'false' or faulty logic, but it still exists in a very tangible way in America and elsewhere in the world. I'm glad that you realize that the things racism uses to support itself are bull@!$%#; I just wish the rest of America could do the same.
I think I may have found some scholars who can help you. This group, Understanding Prejudice.org has a panel of experts who are versed in the field and can provide feedback on research and methodology. I think you should contact one or some of them and submit your model. And see what they think.
You're welcome. I hope it helps. Who knows, someone may have a similar model constructed already. :)
"1) Violent crime by blacks went noticeably down"
That's not what your graph states. It shows that violent crime against blacks noticeably decreased.
I still think you've missed the mark here.
Racism, however, does not distinguish between sub-groups but blankets them into a single group. While there may have been immigration of blacks of all origins as you mentioned, I think that it was statistically insignificant.
Individuals in groups distinguish amongst themselves and racists do too. Hence (and from personal experience) you have racists who distinguish individuals as exceptions to their stereotypical rules ("All blacks are this, but i don't consider you black.") I will track down some info for you to help explain my problem with your hypothesis.
If this is your hypothesis:
I assume that racism is misattribution of characteristics of a social class to race
I think you can arrive at an answer and violence need not play a part of it. And is it not at a minimum "prejudicial" (if you are going to use one false characteristic) to choose violence as that one?
I first showed that cross-race violence is very low. I did use homicide statistics (lacking other), but I think the point is still valid. Consequently, since violence against blacks is committed primarily by blacks, the violent crime against blacks becomes an indicator of violence by blacks.
This analysis is bothersome to me. I can't quite express it, but again something about it strikes me as faulty logic. I need to think about how to explain where I think you've gone wrong here.
Again, I think your final answer --
Although racism being an emotional entity impossible to eliminate along with other bigotry in the near future, I would support affirmative action as a significantly lesser evil
-- something is needed even if it isn't the best solution. And I think you've tried to put a quantitative analysis on a difficult problem. Kudos for that.
If the question is in regard to "social class" and violence and low income, you could have used low income, low social class whites -- even an immigrant class to prove your theory that is "misattribution of social characteristics." Hence, you could have studied Russian immigrants to New York City from the same time period. You have immigrants of the same ethnicity. You have immigrants of varying social statuses. You have a violence component. You have acquisition of wealth and financial security. And you have perceptions about that class made by your control group: middle class western european origin whites. (that is white americans of western european ancestry aka WASP).
Here is the problem... it's finally hit me... A few years ago there was a book that hit the bestseller list called "The Bell Curve." It tried to present as mathematical fact, the inferiority of blacks. The thesis of that book has been soundly debunked. Your research reminds me of that.
As I said, the ultimate result of your argument achieved a reasonable answer, i just disagree with your research. But I have to commend you for trying. Thanks Nikita...
How about a control group? Measure the low level aggression of black immigrants, the same of white immigrants, compare and contrast.
So are you saying that all Russian immigrants from say mid 1970 to 2000 were of the same social and economic class? I'm sure there must be some who were of a lower standing. And some who might not have assimilated quickly in to the American life. See I would think that if you could show that it is class distinction or socio-economic disctinction -- within a single ethnic group -- you might be on to something... so within the Russian immigrant population you have educated PhD.s like your father, and then lower class Russian who are in the service trade and some who are involved in criminal activity. Can you build an analysis of how the actions of one of these groups affect the perception of white non-Russians about them? I don't know if that makes sense, it's late I'm getting sleepy, but i hope you get it...
I will find you something from Cornel West and Henry Louis Gates, Jr. and a few others that might help.
I have heard something like this argument before, I'm interested in looking further at your data.
And thus, if left alone, I propose that given enough time, the term race will seize to have any negative connotation due to even distribution of peoples throughout the society and race will be used to signify nothing more than physical characteristics.
(Quoted from the link)
I don't agree with that at all. If you look at the amount of time which has passed between now and the civil war, it's rather impressive that things have not "settled out further." There are still massive differences between the black and white races, socioeconomically speaking.
My perception (which I'm not able to back up with numbers right now, but I wanted to hear your response to it) is that although there were major changes in the sixties and seventies, there really hasn't been that much to improve things lately.
I guess I should be glad the numbers don't bear out my pessimism, but somehow it just doesn't feel as though things are better. I wonder, is it just because that's the way news stories slant, or a measure of my fatalism?
I guess the question in my own mind, is just how much of reality is reflected by numbers on income and violence? It's good that the numbers are changing favorably.
I just did a simple search of ""black on white" violence homicide" at ask.com and then checked out a couple of the links, No Censorship Richard Boyden
I am not endorsing the sources of all of these links, some of which are no doubt openly racist, but the disparity between black on white and white on black crime is simply staggering. For example, just to provide a glimpse at the tip of the statistical iceberg, at the boyden link:
".... according to the survey "Highlights from 20 Years of Surveying Crime Victims", published in 1993. "Almost 1 million white Americans were murdered, robbed, assaulted or raped by black Americans in 1992, compared with about 132,000 blacks who were murdered, robbed, assaulted or raped by whites, according to the same survey. "Blacks thus committed 7.5 times more violent inter-racial crimes than whites even though the black population is only one-seventh the size of the white population. When these figures are adjusted on a per capita basis, they reveal an extraordinary disparity: blacks are committing more than 50 times the number of violent racial crimes of whites."
At the "color of crime" link:
"One way to understand just how lopsided they are is to express them as rates. The frequency of crime is usually expressed as a rate per 100,000 people. In these terms, 3,494 blacks out of every 100,000 committed a violent crime against a white person in 1994 while only 63 whites out of every 100,000 committed a violent crime against a black. The black rate is more than 55 times the white rate, meaning that the average black was 55 times more likely to attack a white than vice versa. In the case of robbery, or "mugging," blacks were 103 times more likely to go after whites than the reverse."
Just click on a few of these links and read a few paragraphs of the statistical interpretations. Now, I'm no statistician, and certainly not gifted with statistical reasoning, but time after time one encounters such disproportion. I'm not going to address Nikita's argument regarding income level and violent crime. However it seems to me that the simple graphs showing contrasted percentages of interracial violence over time cannot do justice to the reality of the racial disparities. I know blacks have good reason to decry policy decisions and social norms that have put them at a disadvantage, but I am willing to conclude that such disparities of interpersonal violent crime underlie much of the prejudice, here meaning "pre-judgement", that blacks encounter. Regardless of the social and historical causes, it would seem rational, as in ratio, for whites to have more fear, when it comes to personal violence, of blacks than blacks of whites on the streets of America. Please believe me when I say I am open to correction.
I don't know why all that text came out bolded. I entered no coding for bolding, and when it appeared that way in the preview I did try to undo it, to no avail. Similarly, I tried to separate the two links I provided at the top, but could not. There are actually two links there, as you will see if you click. Apologies for the appearance of my comment.
Similarly, I do not know why the last paragraph functions as a link to the Bolden site. I connected no link to the text of that paragraph.
Pseudonihilist, I tried to point Nikita to a site where "openly racist" information would not be included and he would be able to get an academic expert who studies this topic, and would be more familiar with methodology of how to measure what Nikita is trying to measure.
That some white people fear black people because they are afraid that any black person they come in contact with is destined to do them harm is unfortunate, and for most of those white people, an exaggeration of the actual likelihood that they would be the victim of black on white crime.
It seems to me -- and this is not my field of expertise either -- that depending on the combination of search criteria he selects, the experts listed at that site (from 2 to over 600 academics) would be able to assess his model and help him adjust it so that it accurately builds the connection I think he's trying to present.
I would classify the Boyden site as racist and unreliable.
Nikita, I think your demonstration and conclusion are sound: improved economic conditions will most likely be accompanied by a decrease in violence by the black minority population, which will in turn contribute to a decrease in racial prejudice. However, the cross-race disproportion will work against that decrease. Even as rates of violence by both blacks and whites decrease, and even with the black rate decreasing more sharply, so long as the disproportion remains it will remain a factor, I think. Your analysis does not explicitly address that, I believe, so I was simply adding it to the equation, in a manner of speaking. But I'll admit that I find the disproportion interesting in and of itself. My impression is that most people are not aware of just how pronounced it is, and my suspicion is that the reason for that is that it doesn't comport with the politically correct script followed by the press and our educational systems. That's basically why I made the comment I did.
One of the dates that struck me in your statistics was 1970, a high point of violence due to the Civil Rights movement and the Vietnam war. I was in high school, crime was in general very high, much of it was unreported. I think black crime was much more likely to be prosecuted. There was also a tipping point aspect that people were angry because they were fed up. In the late 60's I remember walking down the street and watch a man physically kick a black child out of his way, the child was about 5. 15-20 year later my sister was at a stop light when the store next to her was fire bombed, that entire section of the city erupted in violence. It's hard to tie race to a violent mass rebellion that has sometimes been statistically compared to the American revolution.
What we often argue when we discuss race is whether we create an oppressed people or poverty is an inevitable part of every social structure. However I think the more fair comparison is Black people were a highly skilled part of society that were deprived of the right to compete and had no empowered structure to go to battle with. In comparison Native Americans were systematically exterminated and almost no longer exist. Racism is very real and a problem. When you create a class of people who do not experience or expect social fairness, that is classism. Racism may result in a kind of classism but it's a double failure. A victim of racism must overcome every other social stigma in addition to the requirement that their race succeed above all other world races.
In the global perspective of racism I think Whites can expect to experience racism because a lot of the world is not White. Already Europeans and Americans are considered technically poor which will surely affect their place in the future. Most immigrants from overseas are professionals and immigrants from the South are labor, which increases classism. Both have displaced black workers for different reasons.
There's a very good article in the NY Times today on the Kipp program and why it works. http://www.nytimes.com/2006/11/26/magazine/26tough.html?pagewanted=6&ei=5087%0A&em&en=996a8a48d175d21e&ex=1164690000
As a student of sociology, I find this article very interesting. I would suggest that you take a look at this article: The Impact of Legalized Abortion on Crime. I'm not sure if you are familiar with the research (or its controversy), but apparently, the economist Steven Levitt proposes that the legalization of abortion is a probable cause of the major drop in crime that occurred during the 90's. He argues that the children who would have been born would be more likely to grow up in conditions which are often precursors to criminal behavior.
Other than that, I agree with you. This is an aspect of racism that is entirely overlooked (as far as my curriculum is concerned). Well done.
I agree and I'm glad you came to the same conclusion. Education is necessary for the socialization of the lower classes. As the lower classes become more educated certain things will invariably happen, to wit: conception rates (due to increased sex education) will go down, birth rates will go down (due to less conceptions but also to abortions) and crime rates will go down (educated people are just as likely to be dishonest, but they are more likely to have equal access to resources and thus less incentive to commit crime, also the children of educated parents are less likely to commit crime).
It might be scarcity, or it might be the idea that there's 'nothing to lose when you're at the bottom of the ladder.' Of course this is just me talking out of my ass (and on painkillers) but I'd imagine that those with tangible deterrents to violence and crime (losing a good job, valued property, etc.) have more reasons not to commit it.
Nikita, your addendum is moving you closer to a more accurate answer. However, I would like to see the observer's role in this "misattribution" problem. I think you do demonstrate crime went down, but based on your proof, we are still short of information that shows the observer (or the person making the false accusation) has altered his opinion in light of new facts.
That is, if Observer A sees a lot of poor black people, he assumes all black people must be similarly situated. If Observer A sees a black person commit a crime against another black person (or commits a crime against him), he assumes that black people are more likely to commit crime, and more likely to commit it against him (his past experience) because they are poor (because he believes all black people are poor.) Thus in his perception all black people are poor and criminal. From this all other judgements about blacks are made. (Can't hire them, they're criminals... etc.)
-- If the number of poor black people decreases and the rate of black on black crime drops (but does not end completely), does Observer A change his belief, or continue to believe the same thing, because there are still poor black people and there is still (albeit less) black on black crime?
-- What is the catalyst that changes Observer A's perception? -- What if Observer A continues to see black people portrayed as criminals on TV (news or entertainment shows) or movies at the same rate, even though the actual rate of black crime (misnomer) has decreased?
Who owns the problem of "misattribution"? Not the black person whom you are measuring, but the white observer who has reached a flawed conclusion. Can you rework your calculations to measure the observer and not the one being observed?
I think that is a more accurate way to measure racism. I would say try the military as a population group because it is the same employer, who uses the same standards for hiring and promotion for everyone, at a military base where people live in similar housing (save for officer and enlisted separation). It's a controlled group. But here again, you have the variable of people coming into the military with prejudices and opinions hard coded. Or try a large company, start with one that has a diverse workforce -- say Coke or Pepsi -- and work outward from the workplace. I don't know, but give it a shot.
Set up a situation that could measure attitudes/perception. Subjects would self-identify to the degree of their prejudice (not at all, a little, some, a lot, etc,). Test to redistribute based on actual prejudice. Then present a profile that is neutral, a list of characteristics that could define any group, an equal number of positive and negative characteristics. Have the test subjects rate the characteristics as being more or less descriptive of whites or the "minority." Then use those characteristics to describe a protagonist. In the first scenario, for example, the protagonist finds a wallet with a sum of money it, the protagonist needs money. Ask test subject what protagonist does? Test subject with a minority protagonist in same situation. For each you could ask which group is more likely to?... and a series of common stereotypes which are attributed to one race or another. Is the minority more likely to take the money or return it? Who is more honest? etc.
I'm just rambling off the top of my head, but I'd try to measure preceptions in a race neutral case study, and then more targeted to pinpoint attitudes about violence, if that's where you wanted to go. And you could further test reactions by having the interviewer be white for some segments and minority for others.
You'll have to gather a large enough sample... Finding a diverse population may mean doing some preliminary work at a shopping mall or sporting event... not to do the study but to contact enough people to move them into a study group. Of course I wouldn't tell them up front what the test is about... Make it about the plot for a movie or something innocuous on the surface and thenget into the study. That might give you a variety of race, age, gender, socio-economic backgrounds, etc.
I still think the folks at UnderstandingPrejudice.org or any of the other research labs that focus on racism would be able to help you far more than I. I can suggest that something isn't "ringing true" or doesn't sound quite right, but they are far more talented and skilled at developing models to test ideas than I am.
I would just say that since prejudice or racism is the problem of the Observer and not the Observed, the measure of the decline or increase of racially negative attitudes should be made by measuring the Observer (the person holding the belief system) and not the person who is being judged (the racial minority). As a minority, I can't control what you think about me regardless of my circumstance. So to measure whether I commit more or less violence -- against whites or those of my own kind -- and link that to my economic status -- doesn't make the Observer any less likely to be racist or hold racist opinions.
What changes those opinions is the Observer having contact with said minority group a sufficient number of times to either reinforce his opinion, or a sufficient number of times to prove his opinions unfounded. The "sufficient number of times" variable is important because many racists will continue to hold their opinions regardless of the falsity of them, by suggesting that any examples of falsehood that are presented illustrate the exception to the rule and not the rule itself. (That is "there are good negroes and bad negroes.") The problem is the Observer, not the Observed.
I skimmed through this, and I might be wrong, but here's what I would like to see that would make it more solid in my eyes.
Take two low income sub-groups: whites and blacks. determine the rate of violence among that population. Track as they move to a higher economic standing, and see if both groups reduce violence equally. Also conduct the opposite trial: observing people as they sink into lower economic brackets and see if one race becomes more prone to violence than the other. Of course there are a million variables here, such as community and friends, but if there is no difference that might show something.
Here's my other question: If violence is a direct consequence of race, have African, Latino, and Asian nations been more prone to violence than European nations? Based on race and history, couldn't the point be made that Europeans are actually more likely to commit cross-race violence and oppression. That being said, if race a predominant factor in determining likelihood of either same-race or cross-race violence, history shows that people of darker skin have much more to fear from people of whiter skin.
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